Originally posted by Turion
Great, now that we've settled all THAT nonsense, let's get back to work.
Faraday's law says: Any change in the magnetic environment of a coil of wire will cause a voltage (emf) to be "induced" in the coil. No matter how the change is produced, the voltage will be generated. The change could be produced by changing the magnetic field strength, moving a magnet toward or away from the coil, moving the coil into or out of the magnetic field, rotating the coil relative to the magnet, etc.
Questions for you....WHAT determines how much voltage (emf) to be "induced" in the coil????
I will go out on a limb here and say strength of the magnetic field and number of turns of wire on the coil. BUT Let's have a DISCUSSION about what we are SEEING on our benches, not what we have read in books. I climb out on the limb to give us a place to start that discussion, not so some idiot will come along and attempt to saw the limb off.
How are we changing the magnetic environment of the coil in the devices we are working on currently???
Here I would say that most of us are using a rotor with some kind of magnet on it to pass near a coil and induce (not CHANGE, which is all that is required, but INDUCE) the magnetic field. Would I be wrong to assume that?
If so, are we not PAYING a price to MOVE that magnetic device (for lack of a better term) into and out of the area where it will react with the coil? In other words, isn't there a COST to spin that rotor? Do we need to PAY that cost? Now using magnetic neutralization can significantly reduce that cost, but it does not eliminate it. It will probably get us to COP>3, but not much beyond. When you add recovery circuits, you REALLY get up there in what your system can produce, but I am greedy, so I always want more.
Why do we HAVE to spin a rotor to induce a change in the magnetic environment of the coil. Just asking. I have several thoughts on this matter, but I wanted to hear what YOU folks think. And here is a very, very, VERY (I would type it more times, but I hope you get how important this question is) point. Is the amount of electricity produced by the coil in direct relation to the magnetic field induced in the coil or the CHANGE in magnetic field in the coil. They can be very different things, can they not?
Dave
Faraday's law says: Any change in the magnetic environment of a coil of wire will cause a voltage (emf) to be "induced" in the coil. No matter how the change is produced, the voltage will be generated. The change could be produced by changing the magnetic field strength, moving a magnet toward or away from the coil, moving the coil into or out of the magnetic field, rotating the coil relative to the magnet, etc.
Questions for you....WHAT determines how much voltage (emf) to be "induced" in the coil????
I will go out on a limb here and say strength of the magnetic field and number of turns of wire on the coil. BUT Let's have a DISCUSSION about what we are SEEING on our benches, not what we have read in books. I climb out on the limb to give us a place to start that discussion, not so some idiot will come along and attempt to saw the limb off.
How are we changing the magnetic environment of the coil in the devices we are working on currently???
Here I would say that most of us are using a rotor with some kind of magnet on it to pass near a coil and induce (not CHANGE, which is all that is required, but INDUCE) the magnetic field. Would I be wrong to assume that?
If so, are we not PAYING a price to MOVE that magnetic device (for lack of a better term) into and out of the area where it will react with the coil? In other words, isn't there a COST to spin that rotor? Do we need to PAY that cost? Now using magnetic neutralization can significantly reduce that cost, but it does not eliminate it. It will probably get us to COP>3, but not much beyond. When you add recovery circuits, you REALLY get up there in what your system can produce, but I am greedy, so I always want more.
Why do we HAVE to spin a rotor to induce a change in the magnetic environment of the coil. Just asking. I have several thoughts on this matter, but I wanted to hear what YOU folks think. And here is a very, very, VERY (I would type it more times, but I hope you get how important this question is) point. Is the amount of electricity produced by the coil in direct relation to the magnetic field induced in the coil or the CHANGE in magnetic field in the coil. They can be very different things, can they not?
Dave
With that question you now enter the realm of Floyd Sweet. No motion, but great magnetic change. Too bad no one can figure out the knowledge he took to his grave.
Cheers,
Randy
Randy



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