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Over time i have been developing an Excell spreadsheet to help calculate the average pressure over the course of 1 cycle and for 1 stroke of an engine's cylinder. It helps calculate the pressures from a given volume of water that is converted from water to steam for a given temperature, and particular bore and stroke.
My goal is to determine the overall rate of water required under driving conditions. The spreadsheet works for 1 cycle, and i have been able to convert the calculated average pressures to torque force values in other spreadsheets. My original thinking was that whatever torque force is created over 1 cylinder stroke, is equally applicable over multiple engine revolutions. However, i have been questioning the validity of that assumption. Is there anyone here who is more qualified than myself who can confirm what is the actual case here.
I will give you an example which i hope to assist in replying and allowing me to be clear in the understanding. I use my own units of measurement for simplicity. The actual units are of course not important in this case.
Let us say that over 1 stroke, the applied cylinder pressure creates a force on the crankshaft of 400kg (2.2 lb in a kg). Let us say that over that 1 stroke, it generates 180Nm (Newton Meters) of force on the crankshaft.
Up till now i have been thinking that applying 400 kg of force at the crankshaft each time over 1000 strokes (was going to say rpm, but "strokes" is more apt for clarity), that the torque force on the crankshaft would still remain at 180Nm of torque force.
I have been wondering if it might be that the torque force is multiplied by the number strokes per minute. If this later idea is correct, then that would mean 1000 strokes times 180 Nm = 180,000 Nm.
So, which would be correct?
Thanks
My goal is to determine the overall rate of water required under driving conditions. The spreadsheet works for 1 cycle, and i have been able to convert the calculated average pressures to torque force values in other spreadsheets. My original thinking was that whatever torque force is created over 1 cylinder stroke, is equally applicable over multiple engine revolutions. However, i have been questioning the validity of that assumption. Is there anyone here who is more qualified than myself who can confirm what is the actual case here.
I will give you an example which i hope to assist in replying and allowing me to be clear in the understanding. I use my own units of measurement for simplicity. The actual units are of course not important in this case.
Let us say that over 1 stroke, the applied cylinder pressure creates a force on the crankshaft of 400kg (2.2 lb in a kg). Let us say that over that 1 stroke, it generates 180Nm (Newton Meters) of force on the crankshaft.
Up till now i have been thinking that applying 400 kg of force at the crankshaft each time over 1000 strokes (was going to say rpm, but "strokes" is more apt for clarity), that the torque force on the crankshaft would still remain at 180Nm of torque force.
I have been wondering if it might be that the torque force is multiplied by the number strokes per minute. If this later idea is correct, then that would mean 1000 strokes times 180 Nm = 180,000 Nm.
So, which would be correct?
Thanks