Not sure about the power supply being a problem. the net result here is to duplicate the longitudinal wave of dielectric. With a network of working coils we could then transmit and receive between sets proving that C is not a limit.

There is also the curious factor of reducing the magnetic field to where it is no longer an impedance in the circuit. When considering the finite velocity of propagation of the electric field, self-inductance thus is not wattless, but contains an energy component, and so can be represented by an impedance.

in simple terms its rotating the vectors to where they are in parallel and then you'll have a wave propagation velocity that not only exceeds C but would not have the losses, leakages or impedance of current designs. That opens the door to many interesting things, "lightning in a bottle".

nope that was a shot over Dollards bow who appears to be starting to take this seriously into left field. Log periodic antennas for petes sake have nothing "directly" in common with TMT unless you want to say you can use math in both cases.

Never in a million years did I think I would be forced to say something like that.

You should really read "The Camp David Antenna" post by T-Rex for a second time providing that you actually read it the first go around. He is describing an ALEXANDERSON NETWORK based on a log-periodic design. He never claims that the TMT had anything to do with that particular antenna.

By the way, the C.E.R.N. faster than light experiments didn't make you question the Theory of Relativity?

Dave

Wait I thought the camp David antenna had a direct correlation to the TMT? In terms of each components function.

All I am saying is that the Bolinas Antenna is not the TMT. Yes, it will have similar operating principles when in the LMD wave resonant condition. All Eric is pointing out is another way to achieve LMD transmission via a different style antenna which happens to be a broadband T.E.M. compatible antenna as well as a single frequency L.M.D. compatible antenna.

Forewarning, what you are about to read is HIGHLY theoretical and may contain numerous errors, read at your own risk.

Lamare,

I disagree with a few things you have written recently regarding the dielectric and magnetic propagations alongst a solenoid, with special reference and application to a Tesla Transformer. While at the moment, neither of us can empirically prove our “personal understandings” and undoubtedly, we will both think our own opinions and references are the most correct, I thought I would still give my opinion as to the discrepancies I feel are present in your descriptions.

Problem #1:

MK; BOTH of the mutual inductions of the dielectric and MAGNEITIC fields travel normal to the wire or in-between the turns of the solenoid, this is seen as the length or height of the coil depending upon how you look at it. The individual self-capacities (C_s) as seen between any two turns, add to become the mutual capacity K, as seen from end-to-end of the coil. What you have avoided in bringing up is the MUTUAL INDUCTION of EACH TURN from the MAGNETIC FIELD, or MUTUAL INDUCTANCE M. I can’t quite grasp your phobia of the magnetic field and your never-ending efforts to avoid its calculation. It will always have some level of significance whether we want it to or not, so it’s best to not avoid it, and instead just accept it and attempt to gain new insight into its operations.

Let’s go back and re-read what Mr. Dollard has written on this very subject:

It would seem Mr. Dollard takes into account BOTH of the magnetic inductions produced in the solenoids operation, not only that he also brings up the flow of energy of the Electric Field. My current, and lacking understanding, is that the TEM ELECTRIC FIELD is indeed the Poynting vector S. TO BE ABLE TO CANCEL THE TEM COMPONENT WE NEED BOTH INDUCTIONS OF THE MAGNETIC FIELD, this can be seen if you re-read the above quote very closely. WITHOUT THE (counter rotating) TE (C/M) & TM (L/K) WAVES "CANCELING" ONE ANOTHER (becoming a zero-vector), the counter rotating Poynting vectors of the Electric Field (the individual TEM components of the Electric Field), we will NEVER get PURE LONGITUDINAL OPERATION.

Problem #2:

There are FOUR co-efficients when dealing with a solenoid as seen in the afore mentioned Dollard quote.

#1) The “self-capacity” of the solenoid is of a distributed nature and from end-to-end is similar to but NOT a normal self-capacity; it is a Mutual-Capacity (K) and can be seen as a TRANSFER COEFFIENT and constitutes a reactance, (in this circumstance it is a longitudinal flow of dielectric energy).

#2) The “self-inductance” is also of a distributed nature and the COUPLING between turns causes a Mutual Magnetic Induction (M) or TRANSFER OF ENERGY between windings and constitutes a suceptance, (in this circumstance it is a longitudinal flow of magnetic energy).

#3) The UNCOUPLED ENERGY IS THE LEAKAGE INDUCTANCE (L), this is a STORAGE COMPONENT and constitutes a reactance, (in this circumstance it is transverse flow of magnetic energy).

#4) Finally we have the Leakage Capacitance (C) to ground, here the whole wire is seen as a “cylindrical capacitor plate” and the earth as the other “capacitor plate” this is seen as a STORAGE COMPONENT and constitutes a suceptance, (in this circumstance it is a transverse flow of dielectric energy).

With that covered let’s take a look at another quote from Mr. Dollard:

Well sir, it would seem the "magic" happens when the QUOTIENT of the REACTANCES (from L & K) EQUAL the QUOTIENT of the SUSCEPTANCES (from C & M). This is quite PROFOUND (much meditation needs to be done on this concept). If you really look at what’s going on here WE NEED MR MAGNETISM because without him we can't make the REQUIRED situation TRUE, if we want to listen to Mr. Dollard, we have to actually contemplate what he has given us. To me it would seem magnetism is NOT the GREAT EVIL that everyone makes it out to be. What we want to do is CANCEL (or create a zero-vector of) the TEM portion of the ELECTRIC FIELD. If the Electric Field is the product of phi the magnetic and psi the dielectric, it would seem we can get ATLEAST TWO different MODES or PORTIONS of the Electric Field. What I find the most interesting is that in the LONGITUDINAL MAGNETO-DIELECTRIC MODE, we have the Electric Field, the Dielectric Field and the Magnetic Field ALL ON THE SAME AXIS (in the TEM case all three are on different axes). This may very well be the reason we only need to use one wire.

I don't think we need any smoke or mirrors to understand the Longitudinal flow of energy. M and K are transfer coefficients (longitudinal) L and C are storage coefficients (transverse), its that simple. If L & K are seen as reactances and C & M are suceptances then a zero-vector sum of the reactances is a form of series resonance. Correspondingly the zero-vector sum of the suceptances is a form of parallel resonance. IF BOTH THE PARALLEL AND SERIES RESONANCES ARE EQUAL WE HAVE NO TRANSVERSE ELECTRO-MAGNETIC ENERGY, this is the "QUADRA-POLAR RESONANCE" (or so I believe it to be). The two counter rotating Poynting vectors create a ZERO-VECTOR, in this condition the MK portion is now free of the transverse wave interaction, the wave factor gamma has zero transverse component.

We have journeyed long and hard through the "rabbit hole" and now find our selves in the center of the earth, a place few ever see and fewer live to tell the tale. Will we be able to make it back topside with our new-found insight?

Once again, the contents of this post are highly theoretical and subject to error so don't take everything as being exact, instead think of it as an alternative view or possible solution.

Garrett M

Huh?

How do we know for a "fact" that system was LMD?

LMD to the best of my knowledge is highly speculative, so how can we presume its a fact?

Now that antenna probly did nice telluric transmission but then so does california power and light @ 60 hz TEM.

How do we get a log periodic design resonate at one freq anyway?

This "transmission" by Mr. Dollard (originally two parts on the moon bounce thread) is one of the MOST IMPORTANT regarding the analysis of the Tesla Transformer (or ANY coil). I though it appropriate to re-post it here on the new thread for everyone's convenience:

Garrett M

Garrett, that's about the sum of it. I'm a bit tired so I haven't cross checked it with a fine comb but here's some supportive text by Steinmetz

-perhaps with the only exception of
low-resistance circuits containing large magnetic reactance,
and large condensance in series with each other, so as to
produce resonance effects of these higher harmonics.

Page 10 of AC phenomena.

The Radio engineers book is a decent read however I found it lacking in sufficient mathematical detail of Kennly and Steinmetz. To many one size fits all charts and quick look ups, fine for broad tuning of known variables but not helpful for this new type of design.

coil inductance is usually treated as sheet value which simplifies greatly whats occurring.Thankfully Steinmetz gets right into the meat and potatoes of series capacitance and inductance of transmission lines, the tasking part is going thru the books 'thousands of pages' as we know and gleaning out the needed calculations and relations.

There is a much better experiment than that actually correcting the morley michelson interferometer tests that were done by them that makes one question the theory of relativity, however that does not at the same time magically validate LMD.

Well maybe this is QST antenna design 101 thread, my mistake, my bad, I thought were all here to get demystified and get a clue on how to build a functional TMT from the presumed resident expert who talks about going backwards in time.

That doesnt make you question LMD?

I am working on it:
Who performs the first longitudinal Moon-Bounce in history?



Longitudinal resonance is a form of energy that is electrostatic (or dieletric) in nature. It is associated with a translational movement of the aether, while magnetism is associated with a rotational movement of the aether.

Current is associated with the movement of particles, which are itself some kind of localized electromagnetic waves, that may look something like this:



However, the aether itself can also flow, which is what it does all the time. Like the vortex/spiral like movements that enable particles to exist.

So, dielectric waves can move without the need for particles to move around, because it involves movements of the aether itself. And that flow, which is NOT a "mass" or "particle" based current, can flow without an associated magnetic field.

And that is what is missing in our current theories.


The end result is that the wave propagates faster than the speed of light, exactly because the stuff that moves moves in a straight line, instead of in a spiral. Imagine the difference between a drunk bicycle rider and one that rides in a straight line. The drunk driver does not cover as much distance effectively, because he takes all these detours.

And that is what light and particles do, which is why they move slower than the sober longitudinal dielectric wave.

Interestingly, Wheatstone already measured the propagation speed of electrostatic waves along a wire back in 1834:

http://www.tuks.nl/pdf/Reference_Mat...ic%20Light.pdf


That is 288,000/186,282 = 1.54 times the speed of light in vacuum. Damn close to the theoretical pi/2 or 1.57..

IMHO, you are missing the most important detail in Eric's post:

It is _that_ problem that I am talking about and trying to resolve...

As far as I can tell, ALL theories considering the magnetic field a fundamental property of the aether and consider it to be required for longitudinal wave propagations are flawed.

I went into this a few days ago:
Peter, whatever happened with Eric P. Dollard?




The electric field does not have a TEM portion. You have the electric or dielectric field E and the magnetic field B, H or M.

When you cancel the TEM component, you ARE cancelling the magnetic component. And _that_ is exactly what is so interesting about a coil. You _can_ cancel the magnetic field with it, under certain conditions. So, these theories can give you the conditions how to create your longitudinal wave.

However, the resulting wave that is being transmitted under these conditions does not have a magnetic component and that is the part we have trouble describing, because for waves to be able to propagate you do need a pair of two conjugate energies.

And rotational magnetism is not one of these at the fundamental level and we have no way yet to describe these, even though they are probably related to magnetism. With magnetism you have some kind of momentum that flows in circles. The momentum we are looking for is basically the same, only that it does not flow in circles and therefore is not properly described in our models.

All of the engineering formulas were given. You will know if you stop talking about it and go build it. You will have much more credibility in your arguments if you have DATA from actually trying.

You will know it is LMD if the inverse square law of distance begins to break down.

From what I can see within the mathematical models is that the propagation is not thru the medium of our dimensional space. This is the why of Pi/2 velocity, hertzian waves travel thru our dimensional space. It may be that in order to move thru 'ether' the B field is in conjugate to E field, in a stressed dielectric where the fields are all parallel then instead of propogating the field thru the ether it's a door into the dielectric, aka the scifi 'wormhole'. the hyperbolic graph tends towards an asymptote or singularity. If this is truely the case it highlights a few issues. You'll always need a pair of 'doors', much like in scifi stories of worm hole gates, you need the other gate to get where you're going. It also means that without the other receiver there is no wave to freely transmit within the ether to bounce off objects, don't stop the moon bounce project based on this assumption though.

It's the mathematical models that are showing this, this is why the inter-winding capacitance and inductance are key and critical to proper tuning. at each point of the dot scalar field between windings there is a reciprocal gate/door and this is where the magic happens. Steinmetz covers this briefly in one of his books as a chain of condensers, reading thru and noting the equations one can see he was also referring to coils, the rare time he's not dealing with transmission lines. I do wish he had more to say, I get the feeling it was a round about way of publishing work he was to keep quiet about.

There is also the frequency factor which is ignored other than skin effect and even then it's misunderstood, get to that in a moment, if you notice in coil calculations for mutual inductance and capacitance between windings there is a simplification to sheet and field and this completely ignores the true relations of what is occurring. voltage potential between windings is far greater then the terminal ends and harmonics from the frequency and wave phase angle due to pitch and dia can be catastrophic to the coil, either very high losses or dielectric 'breakdown' which is exceedingly high potentials that become destructive.

it's that phenomenon that is exploited and controlled. Skin effect and resistance to the conjugate wave is frequency dependent and not entirely logarithmic but seems to have two curves. if the depth of the wire is too close to the skin depth for that frequency the induced thermal gradient will destroy the conductor, other than a weight penalty a solid vs hollow wire for HF is the same. Now I not touching on the surface area or circumference that factors into inductance and capacitance.

taking a simple example to highlight the parameters, two cylinders that are axial to each other and separated by a distance. the dia of each cylinder needs to be calculated for a given frequency and current and the distance between them. these ratios will effect the inductance and capacitance impedance which will effect the resonant point, a change in the spacing between cylinders will change the capacitance to greater extent then the inductance, whereas a change in the cylinder dia will effect the inductance greater then the capacitance. both of which will effect the resonant point and phase angle of the current to voltage. a greater change to phase angle in the coil diameter, this parameter also effects the inductance and capacitance in about that order of magnitude. adding to the mix is weather there is a ground termination, open end or return end on the terminal as each has its own effect.

It becomes clear that in transmission lines of two wires there is a massive amount of calculations needed to get the desired results with AC frequencies. a coil is so much more complex in terms of geometry and how the field of a dot scalar product is calculated. I'm not sure how many of those parameters hold true when the line is looped into coil or if there is a translation.

The math is difficult because the math in the first place is an imaginary construct of a net physical phenomenon. There simply has been no real civilian movement in the area of research and applied mathematics to this area, yes a few have pushed forward and made insights and some gains, I think though that most people don't comprehend the enormity of work that still needs to be done, mathematical models need inventing to produce testable theories and avoid blind research. Tesla experimented a lot, however unlike Edison Tesla understood the need for a mathematical approach to research. Steinmetz welded a pen and intellect that thankfully put down volumes of work that applied engineering can start from, Kennelly utilized Steinmetz work greatly in his applied calculations as did many others each to there own extent.

Actually, LMD waves are well known within Electrical Engineering under the name TM waves. You can find them in the textbooks explaining wave guides. The LMD wave, Longitudinal Magneto-Dielectric, is the one with a longitudinal (di)electric component and a transverse magnetic component. The electric field and the magnetic field are always perpendicular towards one another in electro-magnetics:


Characteristic for the "pure" longitudinal dielectric wave that is possible and can be achieved by cancelling the magnetic (or TEM) component is the absence of the magnetic component. Hence it's name longitudinal dielectric wave. There is no M, because there is no magnetic.

Don't confuse these two longitudinal (di)electric waves. There is one with a magnetic component, the LMD or TM(,LE) wave and there is one without magnetic component, the longitudinal dielectic wave, LD.

And the only one capable of propagating with a speed of pi/2 times c is this LD wave. The other one still has this rotational component whereby you have this union of the dielectric and magnetic fields and therefore it propagates at the speed of light, because of the detour the aether has to make in order to support the magnetic field.

Update:

And that has it's consequences for the design of a Tesla transmitter, such as I attempt to construct for my moon-bounce experiment:

@Garrett4m, Eric is really pissed that you took your posts down. Whether they be right or wrong (more towards right), they were really helping take the load off of him. We are all learning here so don't be afraid to share your learning experience publicly.

@Geometric Algebra, you posted a Steinmetz article where he talks about 1000 electrons (J.J. Thompson termed Corpuscles) in a hydrogen atom. Where did that article go?

All the old-timers considered the existence of a medium with fluid/gas like properties as the basis for physics.

Where it went wrong is with the separation of the electric and the magnetic fields. They are considered to be two separate kinds of energy that have some kind of magic interconnection, while they propagate trough one and the same fluid. And then we also consider gravity as something completely different, while that is also propagating trough one and the same fluid AND we KNOW that particles ARE some kind of EM waves from the well established wave-particle duality principle.

And of course you can describe all these phenomena in various ways mathematically, meanwhile maintaining the illusion they are separate phenomena that interact with one another in mysterious ways, all the while KNOWING there is ONLY ONE AETHER, and its a fluid!!

To give you an analogy to what we are doing with electro-magnetics is to consider physics to consist of the analogy of spinning gyroscopes, where we consider the mass in the shape of the electric field as a separate phenomenon from it's rotation in the shape of the magnetic field.

And because of that, we have no way to describe the equivalent of non-rotating masses, particles or fluid movements. And that is why we have no way of describing pure longitudinal waves, because it is the electrical analogy of a non-rotating moving mass/fluid.

In reference to a 'signal bounce' I'm trying to resolve how this is going to occur. In a transverse wave the conjugate pairs 'radiate' in a spherical front because they are conjugate perpendicular pairs, in the case of a longitudinal form the fields are all parallel the incident theta is 0*, no radiation. off set the phase to a small fraction of 1* and that may net the needed radiation. given that it is impossible to physically construct a perfect coil such that all the fields are parallel there is going to be a phase shift where an incident angle of the H field approaches 0*.

since it's a rotation in counter-space it resolves as a reduction in scalar in space, so the field reduces to a singularity in a perfect case. measuring a faster then light wave with very little incident angle is going to be difficult as the wave needs a 'guide' the reduction of the B field to a singularity resolves the magneto-dielectric to a pure dielectric wave. This is where the need for a pair is, the wave is no longer periodic in space but in counter-space, a RX would pick this up instantly anywhere in space. Since it is impossible to build the TX with a perfect singularity of the B field the small incident angle will resolve to a faster than light wave with a very weak B field, this also gets strange as the current is dependent upon the B field time delta, with a singularity of the B field that is at resonance there is no current or periodicity.

I think this is what Eric is talking about in reference to a periodic solution for the longitudinal wave.

This is sloooooooow work, each time I go back over the books of Stiemetz, Thompson, etc.. there is new insight and more questions raised. I've been using the coil calcs of Erics to do calculations and integrals for the various fields and rotations, it nets some interesting answers at times. As it's being done dynamically as possible I can sweep thru Fq's to see what happens. A lot more calcs needed before I can utilize it for power transmission calculations.

Lamare,
What do you think happens to the aeither between two charged capacitor plates in a total vacuume? (i.e. densified, rareified, polarized,etc)

First of all, the periodic solution Eric is talking about is most important in what is known as the far field, the situation further away than about 1 wavelength from the antenna or resonating coil. In that situation, there is no magnetic field and that you cannot describe with our current theory.

However, in the near field, in the vicinity of the object under study, you do have magnetic fields, if only because the particles your material consists of emit magnetic fields.

Furthermore, with waves you have the superposition principle. Which means you do not have to have zero currents in your material nor do you have to have a singularity. The only requirement there is, is that the currents flow in such a way that the resulting magnetic fields cancel one another out at some distance of where the currents are flowing.

I posted this a while ago:

Who performs the first longitudinal Moon-Bounce in history?


Now this may not be completely accurate, since in Eric's view we should forget about electrons, but it does give some insight in that with coil windings it is possible to have currents (whatever it may be) in such a way that there is no resulting magnetic field, because "currents" flowing along the length direction of coil actually flow across the surface of the conductor, which has a circular shape.

In other words: the currents that do occur because the longitudinal wave propagates along the length direction of the coil are such that the magnetic fields caused by them are cancelled out.


Now the other direction, the currents flowing around the coil, are associated with the normal TEM wave. In the particular case that the circumference of the coil matches 1/2 wavelength, then the fields associated with subsequent windings are 180 degrees out of fase and also cancel one another out.


So, what you are left with is a situation whereby you have a standing transverse wave spiraling around your coil in such a way that the effects caused by these waves at some distance is zero, because the waves cancel one another out. And you have a standing longitudinal wave propagating in the other direction, along the length of the coil, whereby the magnetic field also cancels out, because of the reason I explained above.

So, what you end up with is all kinds of currents flowing in such a way that the magnetic fields cancel one another out at some distance of the place where the currents actually flow.

To make a long story short:

No singularity.
Waves canceling one another out...

I dont think your pictorials are telling the whole story.

so tm is something other than tem?

how can you have tem modes if you cancel the tem?

again you are presuming the lmd somehow comes into existence and or is proven as a result of the tem mode. I have seen nothing to that effect.

you have yet to explain how an electric field can move in, through, or on anything without its intrinsic magnetic counterpart.

What can he do that we can't? I don't consider the demonstrations that I've seen being done correctly, so knowing "what" he's supposed to have achieved that we can't would be useful. I've heard him mention "1000% effectiveness"... What does effectiveness mean? He's foreign so does he actually mean to say effectiveness, or does he mean efficiency? Because they are two different things. People can demonstrate a higher voltage at the receiver with their "normal" setups than there is at the transmitter - is this what effectiveness means? Because that sure doesn't mean 1000% efficiency.

I don't know if he's lying or not, but unless he's transmitting the energy via the earth then I don't believe that his boat would be working at 60 metres from the transmitter. As far as I understand it in the most simple terms, you need one "wire" or connection between both coils. You can bypass having to use an actual costly wire through using the earth, acting as one vast conductor that has no limitation of distance unless you start leaving the ground. So distance is meaningless, because the connecting conductor is everywhere. If you are not using the earth as a conductor, and you don't have a wire between the coils, then there's no way you'll power a motor at the other end. And I propose this is why Meyl needs to have the boat right next to the transmitter, he has overlooked the common conductor part of the whole thing. If he took it further away from the transmitter then it wouldn't do anything. So it looks like he's lying, but I fail to see how he would expect to get away with it, unless no one understands how it's supposed to work. And he's probably making a nice bit of money in the meantime, so... I got "the revelation" through a simple test playing around with an AV plug. I noticed that I could make the LED output in my left hand brighter by extending my right hand nearer to the transmitter, and I could increase the distance of the LED from the transmitter at the same time. Then I thought what if I was to touch the coil with one hand, and had an infinitely long arm holding the load, the distance between source and load wouldn't matter because I'm touching both. Then the principle of the wireless was clear.

I think you have a steady state flow of ether from one plate to the other, which actually also flows trough the material itself.

I think that is the case, because asymmetric capacitors can be used to create anti gravity. See this pic for an example of such an asymmetric capacitor in action:


I posted some on that before, with some nice images, etc:
Using Cymatics to visualise electric phenomena?

But let's look at a new page on this:
The "Lifter" Phenomenon

Now according to Stowe, gravity is the gradient or slope of the (di)electric field, which is a mathematical expression of the steepness of the change of the electric field trough space. This image illustrates this:

Gradient - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

So, the gradient expresses the amount of change of a mathematical function in a certain area.

Now if gravity is the gradient of the (di)electric field, it thus is associated with the amount of change of the electric field in a certain area. Now if the electric field is akin to the pressure in a fluid, like what the aether is, then we are looking at a very interesting principle.

Now what we have with these asymmetric capacitors is that you have the same amount of charge at the two capacitor "plates", one positive, one negative. But the surface of one of the two plates is much smaller than the other, so you get a difference in aether pressure. And thus in between the capacitor plates, you get a certain amount of change in aether pressure, a gradient.

Now if you manage to make this gradient such that it cancels out or overcomes the natural gradient that is already there and is known as gravity, then the capacitor object starts moving with respect to the aether in the other direction than what it usually does. And that is what we call anti-gravity...

Well it may not be generally accepted, but to me it is crystal clear how this stuff works.

It's in essence what we know as the Bernouilli/Venturi effect in the aether, as I posted in the thread on Milkovic' parametric gravity oscillator, to give it a new name:

You got that 100% correct, bro

He is using the water as the conductor.

That is why he using a boat and not a car on rubber wheels...

Coulomb's law - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Lamare, the B field is an additive scalar, there is no way to resolve a null field by adding a negative field. The counter-space rotation is a plane shift in space so that the rotation in counter-space will cause the versor to reduce, in hyperbolic form this would be to an asymptote or singularity in space.

Yes I should have clarified the far-field beyond 1 wavelength. I can't see for now how to resolve this as with no B field there is no current propagation. And this may indeed the resultant effect that needs no adjustment. If the receptive receiver of the LM wave translates the wave from LM to TM then it supports the 'gate' or 'door' analogy and still has FTL TX&RX as we've tapped directly into the dielectric for 'communication'. A moving charge even a dielectric charge will induce a current when the impedance is not in parallel, when not in parallel it's manifest in space with a theta greater than 0*.

The term singularity is not the 'black hole' popular take but an infinite term, it's still a mathematical imaginary construct though not a vacuum sucking up space. The B field as I see it based on the mathematics approaches that singularity or infinite term of reduction to ? then since all terms are infinite to each other we are left with a dielectric period that is time invariant, how? this is the troubling part, it can not have a period in counter-space as such a term does not exist -the singularity. however in space the dielectric is in resonance with a standing period. Taking a big leap towards supposition here, it may be that the wave length is reduced to a point as the velocity approaches the infinite term, this would resolve to counter-space again as a plane there.

Until I went over the equations of Steinmetz in regards to alternating waves in detail I was not aware that the sine wave we diagram AC with is never perfect as if it was everything would resolve to = 0, perfect resonance with no harmonics and no movement but infinite potential. being that we can not realistically build such a circuit it's the balance of all those terms that give the desired result or undesired we are after.

here's where I think we diverge in our understanding
the electron, it's an interaction of the field and exists as wave function due to the B field, reducing the B field to a singularity in effect stops the electron from being manifest in space, no longer is there a conjugate present. The rotation is a fundamental effect that translates up, without the B field since it's a counter-space -oh man new thought here, live thinking news this may be the result of the counter-space period that needs explaining. If we treat the space and counter-space form of the dielectric as reciprocal then B field is resolved into counter-space and is how the inverse period factor is arrived at. which would mean the E-field in counter-space may be it's B field. more thought needs to be given on that....

I don't see how we could have the B field nulled and still retain an electron, the B field as calculated is always at a given point and a dot scalar product, rotation of the field to a theta of 0* would result in no field point to be calculated anywhere.

Given that its a time variant property that is a static field description. if the charge was to move a current would be induced, and since the plates of the capacitor are parallel to each other there is a perpendicular B field induced.

this is why geometry is everything.

Are you sure he's using the water as a conductor between transmitter and receiver, because I can't see any wires going into the water, and he explains the water as being the "return path to earth". That is, he is describing it in conventional terms. He's not saying the energy is coming in from the earth/water, he is saying it's returning to earth through the water?? Like a normal circuit. And in this case, why is his terminal capacitance sphere so high in the air? If it was working properly then he could make it a lot neater than that, no need to have a big mast on the boat sticking up in the air.

If he was "cheating" then he could use something like an AV plug and employ the water as a virtual ground, not needing any connection between transmitter and receiver. This way the water would be the "return" path like he describes.

I really do not care about an idealized example of an electric charge.

I am talking about a charge that is moving not static and you really should quote what you feel is the pertinent part.

You arent off the hook yet with that tem business either.

Yes, the tm mode is actually short for TM,LD mode, whereby the magnetic component is perpendicular with respect to the propagation direction of the wave, and the electric is in the same direction as the propagation direction of the wave, hence longitudinal.

With the TEM mode, both are perpendicular with respect to the propagation direction of the wave and in that situation both are spiralling around the propagation direction of the wave.

Note that in all cases the electric field and the magnetic field are perpendicular with respect to one another.

When you cancel them, they cease to exist. Just like you can cancel sound with anti-sound.

No, the lmd is a distincly different propagation mode from the TEM. It is one and the same as the TM,LD mode whereby you have the magnetic perpendicular with respect to the propagation direction of the wave and the electric longitudinal with respect to the propagation direction.

This is the mode used commercially these days by Elmore, as I posted some time ago:


What is confusing, is that with a coil you have multiple modes being present at the same time:

1) You have the TEM mode propagating more or less around the coil; and
2) the LDM or TM,LD mode propagating more or less in the length direction of the coil.

These two together result in an energy flow spiralling around the coil. At low frequencies (below the natural resonance frequency of the coil), the LDM mode is insignificant, so all you see then is the TEM mode.

At much higher frequencies, the LDM mode sticks its head out of the dirt, and you get a mix of both.

ONLY in the specific situation that the TEM mode spiralling around the coil cancels itself out, you are left with a pure longitudinal mode, whereby all magnetic fields are cancelled out.